The Question
A 58-year-old man comes to your office to establish care and review recent test results. He is asymptomatic. He recently underwent his first screening colonoscopy, which was recommended by his previous physician. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. He has no family history of gastrointestinal cancers. His vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. The colonoscopy report states that the cecum was reached and the preparation was adequate. The endoscopist removed a 12-mm sessile polyp from the sigmoid colon and two 5-mm polyps from the transverse colon. The pathology report shows the 12-mm polyp is a tubulovillous adenoma with low-grade dysplasia, and the two 5-mm polyps are tubular adenomas, also with low-grade dysplasia. All polyps were completely removed. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for his next colonoscopy?
See the answer and explanation below:
Post-Call Recovery Reads
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View on AmazonThe Correct Answer
B
Explanation
Clinical Pearl:
An adenoma is considered advanced if it is ≥10 mm, has villous histology, or contains high-grade dysplasia. The finding of 1 to 2 advanced adenomas warrants a 3-year surveillance colonoscopy interval.
Explanation:
Gastroenterology and Hepatology
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